The FAA has published a practice test with 46 sample questions [current 2021]. It’s a great starting point in preparation for the knowledge exam to get your part 107 certificate.

The practice test doesn’t come with explanations, though. So we’ve taken those questions, put them in quiz format, and provided the explanations for each question.

We hope you find value in this free course and if you do we’d appreciate your feedback.

FAA Publications

Sample Questions

You can download the sample questions that this course is based on. FAA does not show which answers are correct or explain the answers. That is what this course if for.

FAA Sample Questions [2021] (PDF)

Airman Testing Supplement

Many of the questions in this quiz will reference materials in the Testing Supplement, such as:

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 21.)

Download the testing supplement in order to respond to those questions:

Airman Knowledge Testing Supplement for Remote Pilots (FAA-CT-8080-2H) (PDF)

Regulations

Question 1:

When using a small UA in a commercial operation, who is responsible for briefing the participants about emergency procedures?

A) The lead visual observer.
B) The FAA inspector-in-charge.
C) The remote PIC.

Correct answer is ‘C’: Being the remote Pilot in Command (PIC) means you are responsible for everything. Just remember that.

Question 2:

To avoid a possible collision with a manned airplane, you estimate that your small UA climbed to an altitude greater than 600 feet AGL. To whom must you report the deviation?

A) Air Traffic Control.
B) Upon request of the Federal Aviation Administration.
C) The National Transportation Safety Board.

Correct answer is ‘B’: Report to the FAA upon request. The key here is you’re not required to submit a report after every violation, but rather only when you’re asked to do so by the FAA.

Question 3:

Under what condition should the operator of a small UA establish scheduled maintenance protocol?

A) When the manufacturer does not provide a maintenance schedule.
B) UAS does not need a required maintenance schedule.
C) When the FAA requires you to, following an accident.

Correct answer is ‘A’: You should have maintenance. Period. Even if it’s just an inspection of rotor blades or checking for leaking batteries. The goal is to prevent crashes and expensive repairs down the road. If your drone manufacturer doesn’t provide a maintenance schedule then develop your own or find one that someone else has put together for your specific model.

Question 4:

According to 14 CFR part 107, the responsibility to inspect the small UAS to ensure it is in a safe operating condition rests with the

A) owner of the small UAS.
B) visual observer.
C) remote pilot-in-command.

Correct answer is ‘C’: Being the remote Pilot in Command (PIC) means you are responsible for everything. Just remember that.

Question 5:

According to 14 CFR part 107, who is responsible for determining the performance of a small unmanned aircraft?

A) Manufacturer.
B) Owner or operator.
C) Remote pilot-in-command.

Correct answer is ‘C’: Being the remote Pilot in Command (PIC) means you are responsible for everything. Just remember that.

Question 6:

According to 14 CFR part 48, when must a person register a small UA with the Federal Aviation Administration?

A) When the small UA is used for any purpose other than as a model aircraft.
B) All civilian small UAs weighing greater than .55 pounds must be registered regardless of its intended use.
C) Only when the operator will be paid for commercial services.

Correct answer is ‘B’: UA greater than 0.55 pounds must be registered regardless of its intended use.

Question 7:

According to 14 CFR part 48, when would a small UA owner not be permitted to register it?

A) If the owner is less than 13 years of age.
B) All persons must register their small UA.
C) If the owner does not have a valid United States driver’s license.

Correct answer is ‘A’: You must be at least 13 years of age to register a drone, otherwise, someone 13 or older must register it instead of you.

Question 8:

Your surveying company is a title sponsor for a race team at the Indianapolis 500. To promote your new aerial surveying department, you decide to video part of the race using a small UA. The FAA has issued a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) for the race in the area you plan to fly. In this situation

A) you may fly your drone in the TFR since your company is sponsoring a team at the race.
B) the TFR applies to all aircraft; you may not fly in the area without a Certificate of Waiver or Authorization.
C) flying your drone is allowed if you notify all non-participating people of the closed course UA operation.

Correct answer is ‘B’: TFRs apply to all aircraft. The only way to get an exception would be through a Certificate of Waiver or Authorization.

Charts

To figure out coordinates remember latitude, which sounds similar to “ladder”, runs North-South. You climb a ladder to go north and in the Northern Hemisphere (that’s us) latitude increases going north. Latitude numbers are shown along the horizontal lines. Longitude runs East-West with numbers increasing going west. Remember; West is best, East is least.

Question 9:

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 21.) What airport is located approximately 47 (degrees) 40 (minutes) N latitude and 101 (degrees) 26 (minutes) W longitude?

A) Semshenko Airport.
B) Mercer County Regional Airport.
C) Garrison Airport.

Correct answer is ‘C’:

The question asks for 47° latitude which isn’t shown on the chart but we can find 48°. Each degree (°) is divided into 60 minutes (‘) and each tick mark on the chart represents 1 minute, thus there are 60 tick marks per degree. To locate 47° 40’ count 20 ticks down along the vertical lines starting at 48°. That locates the latitude.

Longitude is simpler in this example because 101° is shown on the map. Locate that and count 26 ticks west.

Question 10:

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 26.) What does the line of latitude at area 4 measure?

A) The degrees of latitude east and west of the Prime Meridian.
B) The degrees of latitude north and south of the equator.
C) The degrees of latitude east and west of the line that passes through Greenwich, England.

Correct answer is ‘B’: In this case, the line of latitude is 47°.

Question 11:

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 59, Area 2.) The chart shows a gray line with “VR1667, VR1617, VR1638, and VR1668.” Could this area present a hazard to the operations of a small UA?

A) Yes, this is a Military Training Route from the surface to 1,500 feet AGL.
B) No, all operations will be above 400 feet.
C) Yes, the defined route provides traffic separation to manned aircraft.

Correct answer is ‘A’: Military Training Routes (MTRs) are identified as VR followed by a number. Those with no segment above 1,500 feet AGL are identified by four number characters, while MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500 feet have three number characters.

In either case, MTRs are extremely hazardous because military aircraft may be at 400 feet or below, which is your airspace.

Question 12:

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 21.) You have been hired by a farmer to use your small UA to inspect his crops. The area that you are to survey is in the Devil’s Lake West MOA, east of area 2. How would you find out if the MOA is active?

A) Refer to the Military Operations Directory.
B) This information is available in the Small UAS database.
C) Refer to the chart legend.

Correct answer is ‘C’: This is a bad question. There is nothing in the chart or legend that’s going to tell you the current status of activity, other than indicating it’s an “Alert Area”, which means you can fly there.

Your test-taking skills are being challenged here because the best approach to getting at the correct answer is simply to eliminate wrong answers. In this case “Small UAS database” and “Military Operations Directory” are distractors that don’t exist, leaving “Refer to the chart legend” as the correct answer.

Question 13:

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 22, Area 2.) At Coeur D’Alene which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?

A) 122.05 MHz.
B) 122.8 MHz.
C) 135.075 MHz.

Correct answer is ‘B’: 122.8 MHz is the CTAF, which is easy to identify because it proceeds the circle C. The AWOS frequency 135.075 is for weather.

Question 14:

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 26, Area 4.) You have been hired to inspect the tower under construction at 46.9N and 98.6W, near Jamestown Regional (JMS). What must you receive prior to flying your unmanned aircraft in this area?

A) Authorization from the National Park Service.
B) Authorization from the military.
C) Authorization from ATC.

Correct answer is ‘C’: The magenta halo around this airport means it is Class E airspace from 700 feet AGL, but an E-extension within the halo indicated by magenta dashes goes to surface.

You locate the tower (the one at 1727 ft) using lat/long coordinates and determine that it’s within the E-extension. Since that’s controlled airspace you’ll need ATC authorization before flying.

Question 15:

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 20, Area 3.) With ATC authorization, you are operating your small unmanned aircraft approximately 4 SM southeast of Elizabeth City Regional Airport (ECG). What hazard is indicated to be in that area?

A) Unmarked balloon on a cable up to 3,008 feet MSL.
B) High density military operations in the vicinity.
C) Unmarked balloon on a cable up to 3,008 feet AGL.

Correct answer is ‘A’: To be operating in controlled airspace the pilot would have to be within the Class D airspace indicated by the blue dash. Within the circle to the SE you’ll see “blimp hangers” shown with a fallout stating “Unmarked balloon on a cable up to 3,008′ MSL.”. The FAA wants you to be aware that balloons are a hazard to sUAS.

Question 16:

The most comprehensive information on a given airport is provided by

A) Terminal Area Chart (TAC).
B) Notices to Airmen (NOTAMS).
C) the Chart Supplements U.S. (formerly Airport Facility Directory).

Correct answer is ‘C’: Just remember to go to Chart Supplements for the most comprehensive information. NOTAMS and TAC will tell you some things, but not comprehensive.

Airspace

Question 17:

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 23, Area 3.) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?

A) 1,300 feet MSL.
B) 1,300 feet AGL.
C) 1,700 feet MSL.

Correct answer is ‘A’: Class C airspace is usually going to have two shelf areas. The inner ring, or shelf, extends from surface (SFC) to 4,100 feet MSL. Remember these numbers are expressed in hundreds, so 41 means 41-hundred or 4,100.

Locating the outer shelf we find 41/13. Floor is the bottom number which indicates 1,300 feet. Class C airspace is measured in MSL (Mean Sea Level).

Question 18:

According to 14 CFR part 107 the remote pilot in command (PIC) of a small unmanned aircraft planning to operate within Class C airspace

A) is required to file a flight plan.
B) must use a visual observer.
C) is required to receive ATC authorization.

Correct answer is ‘C’: Operating in controlled airspace will always require ATC authorization, with the exception of an in-flight emergency.

Question 19:

According to 14 CFR part 107, how may a remote pilot operate an unmanned aircraft in Class C airspace?

A) The remote pilot must have prior authorization from the Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility having jurisdiction over that airspace.
B) The remote pilot must monitor the Air Traffic Control (ATC) frequency from launch to recovery.
C) The remote pilot must contact the Air Traffic Control (ATC) facility after launching the unmanned aircraft.

Correct answer is ‘A’: You have to get authorization before flying. Per regulations, “No person may operate a small unmanned aircraft in Class B, Class C, or Class D airspace or within the lateral boundaries of the surface area of Class E airspace designated for an airport unless that person has prior authorization from Air Traffic Control (ATC).”

Weather Data

Question 20:

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 20, Area 5.) How would a remote PIC “CHECK NOTAMS” as noted in the CAUTION box regarding the unmarked balloon?

A) By utilizing the B4UFLY mobile application.
B) By obtaining a briefing via an online source such as: 1800WXBrief.com.
C) By contacting the FAA district office.

Correct answer is ‘B’: Your best option here is to use an online resource. 1800WXBrief.com may not be my first choice, but it’s an example of an online resource available to pilots. Note, this answer doesn’t say specifically 1800WXBrief.com, just some online resource.

B4UFLY app does actually exist but it’s intended for recreational drone users and limited in scope.

Question 21:
You have received an outlook briefing from flight service through 1800wxbrief.com. The briefing indicates you can expect a low-level temperature inversion with high relative humidity. What weather conditions would you expect?

A) Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
B) Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain.
C) Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation.

Correct answer is ‘A’: A temperature inversion means warm air on top of cold air, which is stable with very little convection. With high relative humidity expect a low spread, like 12/10, between temperature and dew point which leads to fog, haze, and poor visibility.

Question 22:

What effect does high density altitude have on the efficiency of a UA propeller?

A) Propeller efficiency is decreased.
B) Propeller efficiency is increased.
C) Density altitude does not affect propeller efficiency.

Correct answer is ‘A’: Think of high density altitude as lighter, thinner air. Fewer air molecules mean decreased propeller efficiency.

Question 23:

What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

A) Poor visibility and smooth air.
B) Turbulence and showery precipitation.
C) Haze and smoke.

Correct answer is ‘B’: Turbulence and showery precipitation are characteristics of unstable air. Turbulence is obviously unstable along with rain that is frequent but not steady. Poor visibility, smooth air, haze, and smoke are all characteristics of unstable air.

Question 24:

What are the characteristics of stable air?

A) Poor visibility and intermittent precipitation.
B) Good visibility and steady precipitation.
C) Poor visibility and steady precipitation.

Correct answer is ‘C’: Stable air has steady precipitation and poor visibility in haze and smoke. Intermittent precipitation wouldn’t be smooth or stable, but rather unstable air associated with cumulonimbus clouds.

Question 25:

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 12.) The wind direction and velocity at KJFK is from

A) 180° true at 4 knots.
B) 180° magnetic at 4 knots.
C) 040° true at 18 knots.

Correct answer is ‘A’: KJFK airport is easy to locate, it’s at the bottom. The section containing wind velocity and direction ends in KT for knots. So direction is 180°. That just leaves two possible answers, true or magnetic north. To keep it straight which is which just remember that if it is in print, it must be true, the exception being runways and a few odd others are shown in magnetic north.

Because this METAR is in print the answer is 180° true north.

Question 26:

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 12.) What are the current conditions for Chicago Midway Airport (KMDW)?

A) Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 11, occasionally 2SM, with rain.
B) Sky 7,000 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2SM, heavy rain.
C) Sky 700 feet overcast, visibility 1-1/2SM, rain.

Correct answer is ‘A’: Just eliminate the wrong answers to arrive at the correct answer. In the METAR for KMDW sky is overcast at 700 feet, which comes from OVC007. Height is listed in hundreds so you add two zeros to 007 to get 00700 feet. That eliminates one distractor. Visibility is 1 1/2SM which eliminates another distractor with 2SM. Notice in the METAR there is no hyphen between 1 and 1/2, which can throw you off a little.

Loading

Question 27:

To ensure that the unmanned aircraft’s center of gravity (CG) limits are not exceeded, follow the aircraft loading instructions specified in the

A) Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook.
B) Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
C) Pilot’s Operating Handbook or UAS Flight Manual.

Correct answer is ‘C’: For the sake of the test, Pilot’s Operating Handbook is the correct answer even though there are likely no drone manufacturers that include this information in manuals. Let’s just call this the most correct answer among the options your given.

Aircraft Weight and Balance Handbook doesn’t tell you anything about your specific aircraft, so it’s not useful here. Likewise, the Aeronautical Information Manual doesn’t have specific aircraft info.

Question 28:

When operating an unmanned airplane, the remote pilot should consider that the load factor on the wings may be increased any time

A) the CG is shifted rearward to the aft CG limit.
B) the airplane is subjected to maneuvers other than straight-and-level flight.
C) the gross weight is reduced.

Correct answer is ‘B’: Generally, load factor would be increased by increasing gross weight or doing maneuvers other than straight-and-level flight.

Question 29:

A stall occurs when the smooth airflow over the unmanned airplane’s wing is disrupted and the lift degenerates rapidly. This is caused when the wing

A) exceeds the maximum speed.
B) exceeds its critical angle of attack.
C) exceeds maximum allowable operating weight.

Correct answer is ‘B’: Lift degenerates when the critical angle of attack is exceeded. Exceeding the other options, max speed and weight could have the effect of damaging your wings.

Question 30:

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 2.) If an unmanned airplane weighs 33 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

A) 38 pounds.
B) 34 pounds.
C) 47 pounds.

Correct answer is ‘A’: Either the table to the left or the chart to the right can help us calculate the answer, though the table is more precise. First find the angle of bank, which is 30° in the question, and locate that in the table. The Load Factor for 30° is 1.154. Take that number and multiply it by the weight of the aircraft to determine effective weight.

33 × 1.154 = 38.082 pounds

Physiological/Medical

Question 31:

Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body?

A) Consuming an equal amount of water will increase the destruction of alcohol and alleviate a hangover.
B) A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity.
C) Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.

Correct answer is ‘C’: Just remember that the first thing alcohol affects is judgment and decision-making ability.

Question 32:

Which technique should a remote pilot use to scan for traffic? A remote pilot should

A) systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
B) concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.
C) continuously scan the sky from right to left.

Correct answer is ‘A’: The eyes can only focus on a narrow view area, thus systematically focusing on different segments of the sky for short intervals and then moving to the next segment is the most effective way to scan for traffic.

Airport Operations

Question 33:

(Refer to FAA-CT-8080-2H, Figure 26, Area 2.) While monitoring the Cooperstown CTAF you hear an aircraft announce that they are midfield left downwind to RWY 13. Where would the aircraft be relative to the runway?

A) The aircraft is South.
B) The aircraft is East.
C) The aircraft is West.

Correct answer is ‘B’: The first clue to determining what direction airplanes land or take off at any given airport is the RWY (runway) number. In this case, 13 means a magnetic heading of 130° for the runway. That’s roughly a South-East direction, which is accurately depicted on the chart.

When approaching a runway pilots generally bank left as they circle in. To be midfield would then mean they’re approximately passing by the middle of the runway, which puts them North-East to the runway.

Of the available answers, East is the most correct.

Decision-Making

Question 34:

Identify the hazardous attitude or characteristic a remote pilot displays while taking risks in order to impress others?

A) Impulsivity.
B) Macho.
C) Invulnerability.

Correct answer is ‘B’: Taking risks to impress others is macho. Impulsivity is doing something quickly without much planning, while invulnerability means thinking that nothing bad will happen to you.

Question 35:

You are a remote pilot for a co-op energy service provider. You are to use your UA to inspect power lines in a remote area 15 hours away from your home office. After the drive, fatigue impacts your abilities to complete your assignment on time. Fatigue can be recognized

A) easily by an experienced pilot.
B) as being in an impaired state.
C) by an ability to overcome sleep deprivation.

Correct answer is ‘A’: You can’t function optimally without proper rest. As fatigue gradually sets in it may not recognized but the effect is you are becoming impaired.

Question 36:

Safety is an important element for a remote pilot to consider prior to operating an unmanned aircraft system. To prevent the final “link” in the accident chain, a remote pilot must consider which methodology?

A) Risk Management.
B) Crew Resource Management.
C) Safety Management System.

Correct answer is ‘A’: Risk Management is a part of the decision-making process, the final link, intended to reduce risks with each operation. This may be the decision whether or not to fly in bad weather with the decision-making process relying on situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment. CRM covers all phases of the flight while SMS is an organization-wide approach to managing risk.

Question 37:

When adapting crew resource management (CRM) concepts to the operation of a small UA, CRM must be integrated into

A) the communications only.
B) the flight portion only.
C) all phases of the operation.

Correct answer is ‘A’: CRM includes all phases of the operation, not just flight or communications.

Question 38:

You have been hired as a remote pilot by a local TV news station to film breaking news with a small UA. You expressed a safety concern and the station manager has instructed you to “fly first, ask questions later.” What type of hazardous attitude does this attitude represent?

A) Machismo.
B) Impulsivity.
C) Invulnerability.

Correct answer is ‘B’: Impulsivity means not stopping to think about what you’re about to do, ask questions later so to speak. The anti-dote is to think first.

Question 39:

A local TV station has hired a remote pilot to operate their small UA to cover news stories. The remote pilot has had multiple near misses with obstacles on the ground and two small UAS accidents. What would be a solution for the news station to improve their operating safety culture?

A) The news station should recognize hazardous attitudes and situations and develop standard operating procedures that emphasize safety.
B) The news station should implement a policy of no more than five crashes/incidents within 6 months.
C) The news station does not need to make any changes; there are times that an accident is unavoidable.

Correct answer is ‘A’: To improve safety the TV station would need to fix hazardous attitudes by first identifying them with help from the crew and then developing standard operating procedures. Those procedures help pilots avoid forgetfulness.

Night Operations

Question 40:

According to 14 CFR part 107, what is required to operate a small UA within 30 minutes after official sunset?

A) Must be operated in a rural area.
B) Use of anti-collision lights.
C) Use of a transponder.

Correct answer is ‘A’: You can fly during daylight or in twilight (30 minutes before official sunrise to 30 minutes after official sunset, local time) with appropriate anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statue miles.

Question 41:

When may a remote pilot reduce the intensity of an aircraft’s lights during a night flight?

A) At no time may the lights of an sUAS be reduced in intensity at night.
B) When a manned aircraft is in the vicinity of the sUAS.
C) When it is in the interest of safety to dim the aircraft’s lights.

Correct answer is ‘A’: The Remote PIC has the discretion to reduce the intensity of the lighting in the interest of operational safety.

Question 42:

When preparing for a night flight, what should an sUAS pilot be aware of after assembling and conducting a preflight of an aircraft while using a bright flashlight or work light?

A) Once adapted to darkness, a person’s eyes are relatively immune to bright lights.
B) It takes approximately 30 minutes for a person’s eyes to fully adapt to darkness.
C) The person should use a flash light equipped with LED lights to facilitate their night vision.

Correct answer is ‘B’: Avoid looking at bright lights after adapting to darkness (e.g., reduce the intensity of lighting on the control station). It can take around 30 minutes to fully adapt.

Flying Over People

Question 43:

To conduct Category 1 operations, a remote pilot in command must use a small unmanned aircraft that weighs

A) 0.55 pounds or less.
B) 0.65 pounds or less.
C) 0.75 pounds or less.

Correct answer is ‘A’: Category 1 operations are limited to sUAS with a maximum weight of 0.55 pounds (250 grams).

Question 44:

Which Category of small unmanned aircraft must have an airworthiness certificate issued by the FAA?

A) 2.
B) 3.
C) 4.

Correct answer is ‘C’: Category 4 operations are limited to sUAS with FAA-issued airworthiness certificates.

Remote ID

Question 45:

What must a person, who is manipulating the controls of a small unmanned aircraft, do if the standard remote identification fails during a flight?

A) Land the aircraft as soon as practicable.
B) Notify the nearest FAA Air Traffic facility.
C) Activate the aircraft’s navigation lights.

Correct answer is ‘A’: If the UA or broadcast module indicates that the equipment is not functioning properly while the UA is in flight, the pilot must land the UA “as soon as practicable.”

Question 46:

Where must a small unmanned aircraft’s serial number be listed when using either standard remote identification or a broadcast module?

A) The aircraft’s Document of Compliance.
B) The manufacturer’s Method of Compliance.
C) The Certificate of Aircraft Registration.

Correct answer is ‘C’: This appears to be a bad question. [Read 48.110] Applicants for a Certificate of Aircraft Registration must provide the aircraft’s serial number for standard remote ID. When using a broadcast module the serial number issued by the manufacturer of the broadcast module is provided. The question only references the aircraft’s serial number.

There is no “Document of Compliance” so possibly “Declaration of Compliance (DoC)” was the intended correct answer, which is UA serial numbers.